a)Why does Macbeth refer to the dagger as a fatal vision?Macbeth refers to the dagger as a fatal vision (II.i.36) because it foreshadows his deadly intent to kill King Duncan. Macbeth is obviously under great mental torment, which is the cause of his hallucination of the imaginary dagger. He imagines the dagger, covered with gouts of blood (II.i.46), leading him to Duncans room. This image shows Macbeths fatal ambition as he follows his desire (the dagger) to kill King Duncan with a dagger which will eventually be covered with King Duncans own blood.
b)What does he mean by a dagger of the mind? What is suggested by having Macbeth experience a hallucination at this moment, just before the murder?A dagger of the mind (II.i.38) suggests that the dagger is …show more content…
He have been in unusual pleasure, and/Sent forth great largess to your offices./This diamond he greets your wife withal,/By the name of the most kind hostess; and shut up/In meaningless content.(II.i.13-17) Duncan is giving a ring to Lady Macbeth as a gift for her hospitality. He does not know that Lady Macbeth will be one of his murderers.
I think not of them(II.i.21) Macbeth tells Banquo that he does not think of the witches, even though he thinks about them constantly and acts on their prophecies.
(II.iii.43-65) Macbeth lies to Lennox and Macduff by telling them that the king is still sleeping. Both Macduff and Lennox do not know that the king is already dead.
(II.iii.65-136) Macbeth and Lady Macbeth continued to lie to everyone and acted innocent about their deed. They were the ones who killed Duncan, but told everyone that Duncans servants were the ones responsible for the murder.
O gentle lady! (II.iii.87) Macduff referred to Lady Macbeth as a gentle lady, not knowing that she was the one who plotted the